Ten Sample GRE Test Questions 2020 Plus Nature of Examination
Ten Sample GRE Test Questions 2020: The GRE test (Graduate Record Examination) is a computer-based standardized exam many American graduate programs require in the admissions process. To learn all about GRE exam topics and how to approach them (as well as all about the GRE test itself), read on for CSN legit guide to the GRE!
The GRE comprises six sections and takes 3 hours and 45 minutes to complete.
In those six sections, you can expect to see Verbal, Quantitative, and Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA) sections. But before we proceed, take note of these few points
- What is the GRE Test?
- When is the GRE Exam Offered?
- Can you retake the GRE?
- What Does the GRE Exam Evaluate?
- All about the GRE Test and Timing
- All about GRE Scoring
- GRE Sample Questions
What is the GRE Test?
Let’s start with some GRE basics. You’d think that knowing the GRE’s full name would give you some clue to what the test itself is. But what does GRE stand for? Graduate Record Examination. That could be almost anything!
To clarify: the GRE test is an exam that American universities, including master’s and doctoral programs, use to evaluate candidates. However, individual universities do not offer the GRE as an entrance exam. Instead, the Educational Testing Service (ETS), an independent organization, writes and administers the test.
Admissions committees (adcoms) then use an applicant’s GRE scores, most often in combination with other factors such as undergraduate GPA, letters of recommendation, and personal statements, to evaluate the candidate’s admissions file.
If you’re thinking about applying to a graduate program, it’s important to find out as soon as possible whether it requires applicants to submit GRE scores for admission. Not only will this give you a better idea of the school’s requirements, but it will also help you pin down your test date and register for the exam.
When is the GRE Exam Offered?
The GRE is offered almost every day of the year. (Not on Sundays or national holidays, though! If you have a full-time job, Saturday is probably your best bet.) However, there’s a big caveat to that: seats at test centers fill up fast on GRE test dates, so it may not be available to you every day of the year. That’s why you should register for the exam as soon as you know you want to take it, bearing in mind deadlines for the programs to which you’re applying.
If you’re taking the paper-based GRE (rare, but it still happens), it’s so important to schedule your test date as soon as you know you’ll be taking the GRE. Why? Because there are only two GRE test dates a year FOR PAPER-BASED TESTS. You can take it in February or November—but that’s it.
Can you retake the GRE?
Yes, but there are strict rules about when you can retake it. No more than once every 21 days, no more than five times a year. If you think you may want to retake the GRE, it’s all the more important to register right away. Consider the application schedules of the schools to which you’re applying and plan accordingly.
What Does the GRE Exam Evaluate?
Now that you know how important it is to register early (super important!), let’s look at an overview of the GRE general test. What is the GRE test like? Although it’s broken down into six sections, the GRE only tests you in three areas: Verbal, Quantitative Reasoning, and the Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA).
If you’re wondering what’s on the GRE, what to expect on the GRE, or even what is the GRE like?, basically think of it as the SAT, but harder. The GRE test setup is pretty similar to the SAT’s.
The Verbal Reasoning section is similar to the SAT’s equivalent. It includes some text completion questions, critical reading, and sentence equivalence. That last type of question—sentence equivalence—is unique to the GRE. It asks you to fill in a blank in a sentence with two separate words, intending to create two sentences that have the same meaning. For that, you’ll need to brush up on synonyms.
The Quantitative Reasoning section is a series of math questions that rely on nothing more than high-school-level mathematics. Don’t start celebrating yet, though: that doesn’t mean the questions are easy. The scope of questions includes algebra, geometry, statistics, and other high school level subjects. It does not include trigonometry or calculus.
There’s no need to memorize sine and cosine or integrals and derivatives. Like Verbal, there are three main question types: problem-solving, quantitative comparison, and numeric entry. Quantitative comparison asks you to compare two quantities and figure out which one is larger.
Finally, the Analytical Writing Assessment requires you to write two essays. One is an “argument” essay, in which you are given an argument someone else has made, and you write about what more you need to know to evaluate the argument. The second type is an “issue” essay, in which you take a position and make an argument of your own about a specific issue.
All about the GRE Test and Timing
The total length of the GRE is about 3 hours and 45 minutes. That’s a long time! How does it break down? Take a look:
Analytical Writing Assessment: This section takes one hour, split into two 30-minute tasks.
Quantitative Reasoning: This is split into two sections, each 35 minutes long, with 20 questions per section.
Verbal Reasoning: This area is also split into two sections, each 30 minutes long, with 20 questions per section.
There is an additional unscored research section that the GRE uses for its purposes. This could be either a Verbal or a Quantitative Reasoning section. You will not know which section is experimental. Do not try to guess!
There is a 10-minute break following your third section of Quantitative or Verbal. You will receive quantitative and verbal sections in a random order, but, once you have completed three sections, you will be given your 10-minute break.
All about GRE Scoring
The GRE is scored on a 130–170 point scale for both the Verbal and Quantitative Reasoning sections. That means, even if you get all answers wrong, you’ll get 130 points per section! Don’t get too excited, though: that’s true for everyone else who takes the test, too.
The writing section is scored on a different scale: 0–6, in half-point increments. So, while you can’t get a 0 on the other two sections, you can get a 0 on the writing section.
So, what GRE score is considered strong? That’s a tough question. Exam score standards vary considerably, which you can see in this list of scores for top university programs in the United States.
Are you ready for the GRE? Try these sample GRE test questions as part of your preparation to see where you need to focus your study time. Answers are provided at the end of all the questions.
GRE Sample Questions
Ques 1.: PALATABLE:
Ans.: The correct answer is (C). Palatable means “acceptable to the taste” or “agreeable in flavor.” The word unappetizing means “not appetizing”, or “not palatable.”
Ques 2.: IMPREGNABLE: ASSAULT:
A. invincible: control
B. independent: conquest
C. inimitable: modification
D. immutable: alteration
E. intractable: destruction
Ans.: The correct answer is (D). To be impregnable is to be able to withstand almost any kind of assault; to be immutable is to be unchangeable and therefore able to turn away virtually any kind of alteration.
Ques 3.: The remarkable fact that many inventions had their birth as toys suggests that people philosophize more freely when they know that there —- leads to no —- results.
A. cogitation … trivial
B. persistence … satisfactory
C. speculation … weighty
D. creativity … measurable
E. conjecture … inconsequential
Ans.: The correct answer is (C). To fit the idea of inventions originating as toys, we want the second bank to suggest “results” that are not serious or important — the opposite of what we think about toys. Hence, “weighty.”
With the ascendance of Toni Morrison’s literary star, it has become commonplace for critics to de-racialize her by saying that Morrison is not just a “Black woman writer,” that she has moved beyond the limiting confines of race and gender to larger “universal” issues. Yet Morrison, a Nobel laureate with six highly acclaimed novels, bristles at having to choose between being a writer or a Black woman writer, and willingly accepts critical classification as the latter.
To call her simply a writer denies the key roles that Morrison’s African-American roots and her Black female perspective have played in her work. For instance, many of Morrison’s characters treat their dreams as “real,” are nonplussed by visitations from dead ancestors, and generally experience intimate connections with beings whose existence isn’t empirically verifiable.
While critics might see Morrison’s use of the supernatural as purely a literary device, Morrison herself explains, “That’s simply the way the world was for me and the Black people I knew.”
Just as her work has given voice to this little-remarked facet of African-American culture, it has affirmed the unique vantage point of the Black woman. “I feel the range of emotion and perception I have had access to as a Black person and a female person are greater than that of people who are neither,” says Morrison. “My world did not shrink because I was a Black female writer. It just got bigger.”
Ques 4.: The author of the passage is chiefly concerned with:
A. Explaining Morrison’s viewpoint on the role of her race and gender in her novels.
B. Assessing the significance of the Black female perspective in the modern American novel.
C. Acknowledging Morrison’s success in giving voice to unknown aspects of the African-American experience.
D. Presenting an argument in favor of “de-racializing” Morrison.
E. Explaining why being a writer and being a Black female writer are distinct critical classifications.
Ans.: The correct answer is (A). Notice that the first paragraph says that Morrison “bristles” at how her work is sometimes described, and that the second and third paragraphs quote her comments. The passage is mainly concerned with presenting Morrison’s viewpoint about her writing.
Ques 5.: Morrison’s use of the supernatural in her novels is mentioned by the author to explain:
A. Why some critics categorize her as a “writer” but not a “Black woman writer.”
B. The distinction between drawing from one’s personal experience and using a literary device.
C. The enormous critical acclaim Morrison’s novels have received.
D. One way in which Morrison’s novels are rooted in her experience as an African-American woman.
E. One of the universal themes that are woven throughout Morrison’s novels.
Ans.: The correct answer is (D). See the first sentence of the second paragraph, which makes clear the underlying point being made by the author inciting the use of the supernatural in Morrison’s writing.
Ques 6.: Which of the following is a common factor of both x2 – 4x – 5 and x2 – 6x – 7?
A. x – 5
B. x – 7
C. x – 1
D. x + 5
E. x + 1
Ans.: The correct answer is (E). x2 – 4x – 5 = (x – 5)(x + 1), and x2 – 6x – 7 = (x – 7)(x + 1). The common factor is x + 1, choice (E).
Ques 7.: If the quantity in Column A is greater, select choice (A). If the quantity in Column B is greater, select choice (B). If the two columns are the equal, select choice (C). If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given, select choice (D).
XY = 21
x < 3
Column A: 7
Column B: y
A. Quantity in Column A is greater.
B. Quantity in Column B is greater.
C. Two columns are equal.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Ans.: The correct answer is (D). Take two examples. If x = 1, then y = 21, and Column B is greater. On the other hand, take x = –1, then y = –21, and Column A is greater. Therefore, (D) is correct.
Ques 8.: A certain pet store sells only dogs and cats. In March, the store sold twice as many dogs as cats. In April, the store sold twice the number of dogs that it sold in March and three times the number of cats that it sold in March. If the total number of pets the store sold in March and April combined was 500, how many dogs did the store sell in March?
Ans.: The correct answer is (B) 100
Plug In the Answers, starting with the middle choice. If 120 dogs were sold in March, then 60 cats were sold that month. In April, 240 dogs were sold, along with 180 cats. The total number of dogs and cats sold during those two months is 600, which is too large, so eliminate (C), (D), and (E). Try (B). If there were 100 dogs sold in March, then 50 cats were sold; in April, 200 dogs were sold along with 150 cats.
The correct answer is (B) because 100 + 50 + 200 + 150 = 500.
Sample questions 9 to 11 below are based on this passage:
Policymakers must confront the dilemma that fossil fuels continue to be an indispensable source of energy even though burning them produces atmospheric accumulations of carbon dioxide that increase the likelihood of potentially disastrous global climate change. Currently, the technology that would capture carbon dioxide emitted by power plants and sequester it harmlessly underground or undersea instead of releasing it into the atmosphere might double the cost of generating electricity. But because sequestration does not affect the cost of electricity transmission and distribution, delivered prices will rise less, by no more than 50 percent. Research into better technologies for capturing carbon dioxide will undoubtedly lead to lowered costs.
Sample Multiple-choice Question — Select One Answer Choice
Ques 9.: The passage implies which of the following about the current cost of generating electricity?
A. It is higher than it would be if better technologies for capturing carbon dioxide were available.
B. It is somewhat less than the cost of electricity transmission and distribution.
C. It constitutes at most half of the delivered price of electricity.
D. It is dwelt on by policymakers to the exclusion of other costs associated with electricity delivery.
E. It is not fully recovered by the prices charged directly to electricity consumers.
Ans.: Correct Answer: C
Ques 10.: The passage suggests that extensive use of sequestration would, over time, have which of the following consequences?
A. The burning of fossil fuels would eventually cease to produce atmospheric accumulations of carbon dioxide.
B. The proportion of the delivered price of electricity due to generation would rise and then decline.
C. Power plants would consume progressively lower quantities of fossil fuels.
Ans.: Correct Answer: B
Ques 11.: Select the sentence that explains why an outcome of sequestration that might have been expected would not occur.
Ans.: Correct Answer: “But because sequestration does not affect the cost of electricity transmission and distribution, delivered prices will rise less, by no more than 50 percent.”
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Tags: All about GRE Scoring, All about the GRE Test and Timing, Can you retake the GRE?, GRE Sample Questions, Ten Sample GRE Test Questions 2020, Ten Sample GRE Test Questions 2020 Plus Nature of Examination, What Does the GRE Exam Evaluate?, What Is The GRE Test?, When is the GRE Exam Offered?